![]() ![]() In the above picture, after looking at frequency response of an op-amp, it looks like it have two-poles rather than one-pole.Īlso, the gain curve (with orange pen) is of op-amp with negative feedback. Manufacturers insert a dominant pole in the op amp frequency response. Have constant gain-bandwidth product? Can someone give me mathematical and intuitive explanation? The Gain Bandwidth Product describes the op amp gain behavior with frequency. Gain Bandwidth Product (GBP) gives a measure of the performance of an Op Amp at higher. I am unable to understand why only one-pole frequency response devices can have constant Gain-Bandwidth Product? Why can't a device with two pole To gain access to revision questions, please sign up and log in. An ideal op-amp has infinite gain and input impedance and zero output impedance. For an operational amplifier, the gain-bandwidth product for one configuration will always equal the gain-bandwidth product for any other configuration of the same amplifier. I was reading wikipedia page of Gain-Bandwidth Product and got struck at one particular statement.įor devices such as operational amplifiers that are designed to have a simple one-pole frequency response, the gain–bandwidth product is nearly independent of the gain at which it is measured in such devices the gain–bandwidth product will also be equal to the unity-gain bandwidth of the amplifier (the bandwidth within which the amplifier gain is at least 1). The Gain-Bandwidth of the circuit (usually amplifier) is the product of the bandwidth and the gain at which the bandwidth is measured. An expression for the sensitivity of a general second-order RC-active filter section to the finite gain-bandwidth product of the active elements (assumed to.
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